That truth/fact that Jesus has the Father as His God, is in the ESV translation 17 times. Rom. 15:6 – John 20:17 – Rev. 3:12(4x) – Mat. 27:46(2x) – 2 Cor. 1:3 – 2 Cor. 11:31 – Mark 15:34(2x) – Eph. 1:3 – Eph. 1:17 – 1 Pet. 1:3 – Rev. 1:6 – Rev. 3:2
Yes. Your point? I don’t suppose I need to point out the places where he says he and his Father are one, or where Jesus is said or strongly implied to *be* God, etc., because these are equally obvious. Right?
Looking at Mark 3:25, please indicate if the body of Christ will recognize and acknowledge the same God -or- a different God than who Jesus, the metaphorical head of the metaphorical body, recognizes and acknowledges as His God.
The verse in question is describing Satan. Come to your point. Are you one of these heretics who wants to enlighten the world about the hidden truth that, in fact (!), the God of the Old Testament is an evil bully and not really God at all?
Don’t try to play the Socratic dialogue game with me. Say what you mean and have done with it.
You alluded to what that truth means (Jesus has the Father as God, pre and post ascension) in your very first post, that Jesus is telling us He is not God (He has a God), and that point of His is crystal clear when one applies what He says about His God in John 17:3. Do you think Got Questions left that *critical truth* out (Jesus has the Father as His God) in their commentary on John 17:3, because that is what false teachers do, they suppress/conceal/hide truths as it says in Rom. 1:18. The body of Christ will have the exact same God as the head does (the Father) which is precisely as Jesus tells us in John 20:17.
You need to study the Trinity more. Try reading the chapter about it in John Frame’s Systematic Theology.
You think it simply follows from the fact that Jesus says the Father is his God that he is not also God himself. But this does not follow. Outside of the context of the Bible, this might well appear to follow quite obviously. But inside the Bible, matters are not so obvious.
Throughout the OT, God is referred to allusively, and similarly, he makes appearances in various forms. There are several instances in which the Angel of the Lord says something, and then, the next sentence, without skipping a beat, the text says the Lord (himself) does, or says, something. But nothing other than the word indicates a shift in characters. Evidently, the “messenger“ is being identified with God himself.
You cannot take texts and isolation and expect to build a coherent theory of what the Bible says. So, in addition to the text you found…
Here is another concept the Teachers of The Law need to suppress/conceal/hide ===> “Shaliah the Jewish Principle of Agency”. – I am quite certain you will agree that at some point in time all are going to find out if Jesus is correct in saying that His God (the Father) is the only true God and that one does not want to be on the wrong side of this truth/fact. Remember Mat. 24:11 (2 Cor. 11:14-15). – The Teachers of The Law do not have unblemished record before God, as stated in Jer. 8:8.
Dude, one thing I absolutely detest is the failure of people to engage, after I take the time to engage. Instead, they come up with some other inanity to respond to, as if I had said nothing earlier. Or, maybe you’re abandoning your earlier argument. If your silence on my points shows that you concede my response, then why don’t you see that further argument is unnecessary?
In short. I responded to your argument. Respond to mine, or find yourself blocked from further posting here. I have no patience for dogmatic heretics.